Refer to the passage. Which of the following statements best explains the
effect of the decline of feudalism in medieval Europe?
"Henceforth it shall be lawful for any free man to sell at
will his lands or tenements or a part of them; in such
manner, however, that the infeudated person shall hold
that land or tenement from the same lord in chief and by
the same services and customs by which his infeudator
previously held them. And if he shall have sold to any
one any part of those his lands or tenements, the
infeudated person shall hold that (part) directly of the lord
in chief, and shall straightway be charged with as much
service as pertains or ought to pertain to that lord for that
parcel, according to the quantity of the land or tenement
sold; and so in this case there shall fall away from the
lord in chief that part of the service which is to be
performed by the hand of the infeudator, from the time
when the infeudated person ought to be attendant and
answerable to that same lord in chief, according to the
quantity of the land or tenement sold for that parcel of
O Peasants were allowed some freedom in hopes of
securing other feudal obligations.
O The growing middle class wished to purchase land to
become lords and to gain prestige.
O Lords pushed for stronger feudal ties to ensure a
stable food supply and cash flow.
O More lords had encouraged a conversion to livestock
production, which caused a glut of laborers to pack
into crowded cities