The nurse is caring for a 22-year-old g2, p2 client who has disseminated intravascular coagulation after delivering a dead fetus. which finding is the highest priority to report to the health care provider (hcp)?

A. activated partial thromboplastine time(ATTP) of 30 secs.

B. Haemoglobin of 11.5g/dl(115g/l)

C. urinary output of 25ml in the last 1hour

D. platelets at 149000mm3(149*109/l)

Correct option is A

Explanation:

The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT or APTT ) is a blood test that characterizes coagulation of the blood.The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is often used in conjunction with another measure of how quickly blood clotting takes place called the prothrombin time (PT). The prothrombin time (PT) measures the speed of clotting by means of the extrinsic pathways

The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) reflect the underlying consumption and impaired synthesis of the

coagulation cascade.

yes!

explanation:

because it has a type of fat that can make you extremely sick

ya the other dude is right