A 19-year-old man presents to the ED with pain along his penile shaft for the past 7 days. He reports a low-grade fever and myalgias and was sexually active with a new partner 10 days ago. He denies any penile discharge or dysuria. There is no inguinal adenopathy palpated on exam, but he has tender penile lesions, revealed in the image seen above. Which of the following is most likely to be an effective treatment?
Acyclovir PO
Ceftriaxone IM
Doxycycline PO
Penicillin G IM
Answers: 2
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A 19-year-old man presents to the ED with pain along his penile shaft for the past 7 days. He report...
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