A 24-year-old G1P1 woman comes to the office requesting contraception. Her past medical history is unremarkable, except for a family history of ovarian cancer. She denies alcohol, smoking and recreational drug use. She is in a monogamous relationship. She wants to decrease her risk of gynecological cancer. Of the following, what is the best method of contraception for this patient? A. Female condoms
B. Male condoms
C. Copper containing intrauterine device
D. Progesterone containing intrauterine device
E. Combined oral contraceptives

E. combined oral contraceptives

Explanation:

Oral contraceptives will decrease a woman's risk of developing ovarian and endometrial cancer. The earlier, higher dose oral contraceptive pills have been linked to a slight increase in breast cancer, but not the most recent lower dose pills. Women who use oral contraceptive pills have a slightly higher risk of developing cervical intraepithelial neoplasia, but their risk of developing PID, endometriosis, benign breast changes and ectopic pregnancy are reduced. Both hypertension and thromboembolic disorders can be a potential side effect from using oral contraceptive pills. Condoms and intrauterine devices will not lower her risk of ovarian cancer.

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explanation:

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