A 28 year old woman, 18 weeks pregnant following a one-night stand unprotected sexual encounter, went to her doctor after 36 hours of headache, fever, nausea, and vomiting. Her doctor admitted her to the hospital immediately with a 104F fever and neck stiffness. All neurological exams were otherwise normal. A gram smear of the CSF (test 1) was conducted and revealed gram-negative diplococci and culture on chocolate agar showed small colorless colonies (test 2). The doctors treated her with an antibiotic, but also performed a third test to confirm diagnosis molecularly. She recovered without any complications, 1. What did this patient have?
2. What risk factors made this patient more likely to get this infection?
3. What would this patient be treated with?
4. What type of molecular diagnostic test might the doctors have used and how does it work?