If the consumer is consuming exactly two goods, and she is always spending all o her money, can both of them be inferior goods?

Via:   "if you are found to be supplying or dealing drugs, the punishment is likely to be tough. supplying drugs doesn’t just apply to dealers. if police suspect that you intend to share drugs with your friends, this is still considered to be supplying.

being suspected of supplying drugs means you are much more likely to be charged. the amount of drugs found on you, and whether you have a criminal record, will be taken into account when a punishment is being decided.

decisions to prosecute are taken by the public prosecution service. the maximum sentences for intent to supply drugs are:

- up to life in prison or an unlimited fine (or both) for a class a drug- up to 14 years in prison or an unlimited fine (or both) for a class b or class c drug."sorry if this was a school question, you didnt supply options so i assumed it was a personal question, which if it is, reconsider selling or having possesion of any drugs at all. i wish you the best!