Is overshooting (in theory and in practice) consistent with purchasing power parity? Consider the reasons for the usefulness of PPP in the short run versus the long run and the assumption we’ve used in the asset approach (in the short run versus the long run). How does overshooting help to resolve the empirical behavior of exchange rates in the short run versus the long run?

Selected data for stick’s design are given as of december 31, year 1 and year 2 (rounded to the nearest hundredth). year 2 year 1 net credit sales $25,000 $30,000 cost of goods sold 16,000 18,000 net income 2,000 2,800 cash 5,000 900 accounts receivable 3,000 2,000 inventory 2,000 3,600 current liabilities 6,000 5,000 compute the following: 1. current ratio for year 2 2. acid-test ratio for year 2 3. accounts receivable turnover for year 2 4. average collection period for year 2 5. inventory turnover for year 2

Magic realm, inc., has developed a new fantasy board game. the company sold 15,000 games last year at a selling price of $20 per game. fixed expenses associated with the game total $182,000 per year, and variable expenses are $6 per game. production of the game is entrusted to a printing contractor. variable expenses consist mostly of payments to this contractor.required: 1-a. prepare a contribution format income statement for the game last year.1-b. compute the degree of operating leverage.2. management is confident that the company can sell 58,880 games next year (an increase of 12,880 games, or 28%, over last year). given this assumption: a. what is the expected percentage increase in net operating income for next year? b. what is the expected amount of net operating income for next year? (do not prepare an income statement; use the degree of operating leverage to compute your answer.)

Serious question, which is preferred in a business? pp or poopoo?