The dividend discount model is still useful even when the company pays no dividends. For example, Amazon has never paid a dividend, but we can anticipate that Amazon will eventually pay a considerable level of dividends in the future. Suppose that Amazon will pay its first dividend of $201 per share in 10 years.

Does this invalidate the divident discount model?

Need with my trade theory homework. i doubt what i wrote was right.consider a monopolistically competitive market for soft drinks in which n symmetric firms face the following demand function: q=s(1/n-b(p-(p with the straight line on which implies the marginal revenue functionmr=p-(q/sb)finally, suppose firms face the total cost functiontc=900,000+100qsuppose the market size, s, is 27,000,000, and the elasticity parameter b is 0.003.diagram the price and the average total cost in the market as a function of the number of firms. what are the equations for each curve, and why does each curve slope up or down? label the equilibrium number of firms and the equilibrium price in the diagram. why is this the equilibrium?

Uknow what i love about i ask a dumb question it is immediately answered but when i ask a real question it take like an hour to get answered

How do the percentages of the 65 customer satisfaction ratings in that actually fall into the intervals [formula62.mml ± s], [formula62.mml ± 2s], and [formula62.mml ± 3s] compare to those given by the empirical rule? do these comparisons indicate that the statistical inferences you made in parts b and c are reasonably valid? (round your answers to the nearest whole number. omit the "%" sign in your