Bros Co. expects its EBIT to be $100,000 every year forever. The firm can borrow at 11 percent. Bruce currently has no debt, and its cost of equity is 18 percent. The tax rate is 31 percent. Bruce will borrow $61,000 and use the proceeds to repurchase shares. What will the WACC be after recapitalization

WACC=17.15%

Explanation;

MV of equity=EBIT8(1-t)/Ke          

MV of equity=100,000*(1-.31)/.18=$383,333  

Total value of the firm=Market value of equity+present value of tax savings on interest

Total value of the firm based on EBIT= $383,333+.31*61,000

Total Value of the firm=$402,243

Keg=Keu+(Keu-Kd)*D/E*(1-t)

where Keu= cost of equity of un-geared company=18%

Keg=cost of equity of geared company=?

Kd=cost of debt=11%

Keg=.18+(.18-11)*61,000/(402,243-61,000)*.69

Keg=.18+.0086

Keg=18.86%

NoW revised WACC will be

WACC=Keg*MV of equity+Kd(1-t)*cost of debt/(total value of firm)

WACC=.1886*(402,243-61,000)+.11(1-.31)*61,000/(402,243)

WACC=17.15%                

the answer is risk management planning

there was no passage listed but using the process of elimination i'd say it was d. the high economy would do the opposite. i don't see how low prices would affect it. high unemployment is possible but i feel d is the better answer.