To understand at what point irregular verbs entered into the english language, one would need to go back to which of these? a)anglo-saxon period b)ancient greece c)ancient rome d)middle english period

Most Irregular verbs derive from native verbs we had since Old english, the verbs that have entered the language after that are mostly regular.

Old English was the early language of the anglo-saxons, in medieval times. So that's the answer, a. the anglo-saxon period.

The answer is option A (Anglo-Saxon period).

Explanation:

The Anglo-Saxons were a tribe made up of three peoples (the Saxons, the Angles, and the Jutes). They invaded England after the Roman occupation and became the ancestors of the English people.

The Anglo-Saxons spoke Old English from which irregular verbs come from. We say the irregular verbs are native because they existed in Old English.

Irregular verbs change their form when conjugated in different tenses, for example, "begin" (began, begun) and "think" (thought).

in the story "marionettes inc," in the last line of the story, braling two is referred to by the narrator as the "someone." what does this new identifier imply and how does it add to the drama of the closing scene?