Ineed this assap some critics believe that hamlet is not insane for the majority of the play, but does "temporarily lose his rationality in his rage with his mother during the famous closet scene" this line comes from page 34 the book entitled, hamlet's perfection, by william kerrigan. how should this sentence end if it is cited in a paper? a) (kerrigan 34). b) .(kerrigan 34) c) (kerrigan, 34). d) (kerrigan page 34).

B

There is much evidence in the play that Hamlet deliberately feigned fits of madness in order to confuse and disconcert the king and his attendants. His avowed intention to act "strange or odd" and to "put an antic disposition on" 1 (I. v. 170, 172) is not the only indication. The latter phrase, which is of doubtful interpretation, should be taken in its context and in connection with his other remarks that bear on the same question. To his old friend, Guildenstem, he intimates that "his uncle-father and aunt-mother are deceived," and that he is only "mad north-north-west." (II. ii. 360.) But the intimation seems to mean nothing to the dull ears of his old school-fellow. His only comment is given later when he advises that Hamlet's is "a crafty madness." (III. i. 8.)

When completing with Horatio the arrangements for the play, and just before the entrance of the court party, Hamlet says, "I must be idle." (III. ii. 85.) This evidently is a declaration of his intention to be "foolish," as Schmidt has explained the word. 2 Then to his mother in the Closet Scene, he distinctly refers to the belief held by some about the court that he is mad, and assures her that he is intentionally acting the part of madness in order to attain his object:

C).(Kerrigan, 34)

hope this helps thx for the 50 points too

answer: honestly, me too dude. i feel that.

explanation: