If psychology were to be an exact, or to use mill's phrase, "a perfect" science, then specific human acts could be accurately predicted. would a prediction be accurate if the person about to act becomes aware of the prediction prior to the act itself? does the fact that a prediction can be known in advance disprove the possibility of predicting accurately or is that fact just one more antecedent condition? thoroughly explain your view.

Identify the trade regulation concept described in each scenario. protectionism free trade trade war country a and country b want to develop their respective export markets. both countries have highly developed agricultural, industrial, and service sectors. the countries decide to initially lower trade barriers and eventually remove them completely. arrowright country a has an agrarian economy with an emerging industrial sector. to allow domestic industries to grow, country a applies quotas on all industrial products except those that are used as resources. arrowright country a passes an economic policy that will indirectly give its own companies an advantage over country b’s companies. country b alleges that the policy violates the countries’ trade agreement and imposes retaliatory tariffs. arrowright