What does the quote “The man who does not read books has no advantage over the one who cannot read them.” mean?

they are both blind men.

Explanation: while one man (the man who doesn’t read) has the choice to inform themselves, the one who can’t read is unable to read. The illiterate one is blind to information and is hindered in his academic endeavors because he lacks a skill set needed to learn. But just because you can read doesn’t make you smarter than someone is illiterate. If you don’t read books to both improve your skill set and gain more knowledge, the skill set becomes useless and your just as helpless as the man who cannot read. Hope I didn’t confuse you more:

i think the answer is d.