In these paragraphs, Kant says that it is possible for societies to exist where no one uses his talents or where no one has compassion for another person, but that no person could “possibly will that this should be a universal law of nature or be implanted in us as such by a natural instinct.” Why does he feel he can make assumptions about this? Do you think he’s accurate in doing so? HELP
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Deontology is the ethical theory that sees morality as doing one’s duty by following rules, without considering the probable consequences of one’s actions. The moral philosophy of Immanuel Kant exemplifies deontological normative ethics.

Recall where we left off in the prior section where we considered Kant’s epistemological position that moral duty must be sought a priori “in the conception of pure reason.” Further, the foundation of practical reason can be found in a single common moral principle that applies universally. (Passages included from Kant’s writing are from Fundamental Principles of the Metaphysic of Morals.)

…if the critique of a pure practical Reason is to be complete, it must be possible at the same time to show its identity with the speculative reason in a common principle, for it can ultimately be only one and the same reason which has to be distinguished merely in its application.

Explanation:

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i think it may be b, i'm not exactly too sure on this. but b seems to make more sense.