In hamlet, prince hamlet announces that he will pretend to be insane, but some scholars have argued that hamlet ends up not just pretending to be insane and posit that he may actually descend into madness at certain points in the play.

what do you think? was hamlet’s insanity entirely fake? or did he actually become mad at times? cite evidence from acts i, ii, and iii to support your answer.

Although Hamlet was fully in control of his sanity at the start of his plan to avenge his father’s death, he slowly drifts in the direction of madness. At first, Hamlet pretends to be insane in order to plot his revenge, but he gradually begins questioning his motives.

To be, or not to be? That is the question—

Whether ’tis nobler in the mind to suffer

The slings and arrows of outrageous fortune,

Or to take arms against a sea of troubles[.]

This line sums up Hamlet’s state of mind in act III. In this case, we see Hamlet questioning his very existence, much like a madman would who has lost his sanity. Therefore, it can be stated that Hamlet does descend into madness as the plot unravels.

Hamlet treats Ophelia shabbily in act III, scene I:

I have heard of your paintings, well enough.

God hath given you one face, and you make

yourselves another. You jig, and amble, and

you lisp, and nickname God's creatures, and

make your wantonness your ignorance. Go to,

I'll no more on't, it hath made me mad.

In this case, Hamlet’s madness leads him to generalize about women. He thinks Ophelia is capable of doing the same deeds his mother did. He openly states that women are deceptive and this behavior has driven him mad.

Hamlet claims to have seen a ghost in act I, a supernatural being whose presence is debatable.

Hamlet’s insanity drives him to stab at the tapestry behind which Polonius was standing in act III, as his madness made him envision Claudius behind the curtain.

If you believe that Hamlet never actually went insane, you might include the following points in your

Hamlet confided in Horatio in act I that he would pretend to be insane in order to get to the bottom of the murder accusations made by the ghost.

Even though Hamlet pretended to be mad, he never lost sight of his goal, that is, to seek revenge against his uncle, Claudius.

Hamlet pretended to be insane in act III, scene I in the company of Ophelia because he knew Claudius was spying on him. Therefore, in order to keep up the charade, he accused her of being promiscuous and untrustworthy, similar to his mother. This message would clearly be for Claudius to hear.

He uses his insanity to get an opportunity to be with his mother alone in a room in order to tell her how he truly feels about her new husband and the vows she made to Hamlet’s father. PLATO

a i thinkmark me brainliest

yes this is def an analogy

a comparison between two things

explanation: