English, 03.08.2019 10:00 kevonmajor
Why did shakespeare use iambic pentameter for the dialogue of noble characters, while commoners often spoke in blank verse or prose? a. to show the difference between an educated, refined noble class and coarse, crude commoners b. to teach lower-class audience members how to speak better c. to show his respect for the upper classes and let them know that he was one of them d. to make fun of the upper classes for the snobby and silly way they speak
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What do we call a two-syllable metrical foot that consists of one unaccented syllable followed by an accented syllable? a. anapest b.dactyl c.iamb d.elision
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Why did shakespeare use iambic pentameter for the dialogue of noble characters, while commoners ofte...
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