Why philip ii described as an absolute monarchy?

Philip II was King of the Spanish Empire between (1556–1598), which included the territories of Spain, Portugal, Naples, Sicily and he was Duke of Milan too. After his marriage, with Queen Mary Tudor, he became also King of England and Ireland.

He was an absolute monarch, who believed in the divine right of kings, through which these obtain their power directly from God, and are guided by God too during the ruling, therefore it is imposible that their decisions can be wrong. All the power in the nation is concentrated on his figure (legislative, executive and judiciary powers), he appointed his subordinates who answered to him and left no decision-making power to the citizens, therefore there were no democratic practices.

King Philip II of Spain, also known as Philip the Prudent, was one of the world's largest emperors.  He, as a head of the government of Spain, believed in the unchallenged and eternal right of monarchs which he used too, to justify several immoral and illegal acts like murders. Philip developed a system of regional self-government in which viceroys were answerable to him and he ruled as an absolute monarch.

assuming that you are talking about the one in egypt: hecka oil

explanation:

2 is armenia i think