Why did the colonies not utilize the english common law practice of primogeniture during the 1600s and then begin practicing it in the 1700s

Among the English colonies in America, the general opinion was commonly against primogeniture and entail since the practice did not seem favorable to the growing population, and was unnecesary given the great availability of land to expand to westward, allowing the future generations to take over these potential new properties.

It was later in the 18th century that culture and traditions shifted in favor of primogeniture, as it seemed rather efficient to pass the legacy of large estates into the hands of one individual that would keep its integrity intact, rather than dividing the property among several heirs.

the group i'm selecting: greeks.

a first group of greek immigrants came to the us in the 1850s. the second group came to america starting in the 1890s due to economic opportunities they didn't have back in their home caused by the hardships of ottoman rule. greek immigration was 90% male, many of them expected to work and return to greece after earning enough capital, but ultimately had to remain in the us after the greek genocide.