According to Holden and Villars (2013), the term "Latin America" gained popularity in the 19th century in part because leading intellectuals of that time believed that a Latin "race" existed that was different than a northern "race" of Anglo-Saxons.

A) True
B) False

True

Explanation: the statement is correct, the term "Latin American" gained popularity in the 19th century because leading intellectual then believed the Latin race exist in the 19th century that was different from the "northern race" of the Anglo-Saxons. The statement was according to the Holden and villas (2013).

i have no idea lets guess a

explanation: