Why did the Spanish tend to settle and intermarry with the Indian population whereas the English killed the Indians, drove them out, or confined them to separate territories?

You have to take into account that the Spanish arrived to the New World a long time before the English did, and the Spanish also did not settle in the parts the English settled in. The Spanish went to the Incas, the Aztecs, and the Mayas, all civilizations that were incredibly advanced and immensely powerful. The Conquistadores were few in number, while the Natives were plentiful. The Spanish had no other choice but to kowtow down to the Natives for the time being. As their Old World diseases ravaged the Native population, the Spanish eventually usurped power.

Explanation:

explanation:

ad the excerpt and i will gladly answer

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