Why were only men with money and property able to vote (roman)

This was due to the fact that men for a long period in history were the favored gender because they were thought to be stronger and more intelligent than females. So, sexism played a huge role in this factor. However, in the past that was a normality. Furthermore, affluence represents social status so if you had money and property it probably meant you were wealthy. It was all about how significant you were in society to enable you to take part in voting therefore if you were a man with money you were able to do so.

Ithink it’s a : ) good luck on whatever