subject
History, 20.11.2020 08:30 alexvillaa121

You know that enslaved Africans in the colonies had no rights, no freedom. In the Declaration of Independence, Thomas Jefferson wrote that freedom (he called it “liberty”) was an “inalienable right” (one that was given to people by God and can’t be taken away). Yet he himself owned slaves as did many of the other signers. How can you explain this? Assume he wasn’t insane and that he did understand what he was doing.

ansver
Answers: 1

Another question on History

question
History, 21.06.2019 18:00
What clause(s) expanded the power of the executive branch, especially relating to foreign policy?
Answers: 2
question
History, 21.06.2019 20:30
How might a utilitarian person respond to the magistrate and the mob?
Answers: 1
question
History, 22.06.2019 07:00
Enforces the laws.a.legislativeb.executivec.judicial
Answers: 1
question
History, 22.06.2019 08:00
What was the grimke sisters' argument for equal rights for women based on?
Answers: 2
You know the right answer?
You know that enslaved Africans in the colonies had no rights, no freedom. In the Declaration of Ind...
Questions
question
Mathematics, 16.05.2021 19:30
question
English, 16.05.2021 19:30
question
Chemistry, 16.05.2021 19:30
question
Geography, 16.05.2021 19:30
Questions on the website: 13722360