What do you think was the reason rizal wrote the original noli me tangere in spanish, the language of colonizers?

Noli was known to be originally written in Spanish, This was done so that the Spanish authorities would read it. This was the reason Rizal wanted  it to happen that way so that the likelihood that Spanish authorities would read it first would be very high.

A lot of copies of books were given to churches, many were destroyed, many anti-Noli writers also arise.

"Noli me tangere" talks about the purpose of its author, which was to expose the sufferings of the Filipino people to the public gaze.

The book was also published and read in the Philippines in either Tagalog or English.

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He was hoping they would read it.

Explanation:

Noli Me Tángere, Latin for "Touch me not", is an 1887 novel by José Rizal at a critical period when Philippines was colonized by Spain and he wrote it to portray the inequalities of the Spanish Catholic and government.

The book was written originally in Spanish and Rizal wanted them to read it as he sent copies of the book to churches of which many were destroyed.

b. the passage of the equal rights amendment  

explanation:

this mean that anything that someone else could do they could do

he government should regulate the economy