Which of the following best explains the decline in levels of per capita production for China and India in the period following 1750?

The search for raw materials and markets for manufactured goods drove Europeans to colonize Asia

Explanation:

The best explanation for the decline in levels of per capita production for China and India in the period following 1750 was that "the search for raw materials and markets for manufactured goods drove Europeans to colonize Asia."

This is evident in the fact that before the Europeans influx into the Asia continent, countries like China and India were doing well in terms of the production of goods like papers, gun powder, etc.

However, the influx of Europeans to buy their raw materials and at the same time make them buy the Europeans finished products, disrupted their production activities, and made them dependent on Europeans.

the american colonists were happy with their vicorty, but the french were mad and the french and indians were not alies, and neither were the french and colonist. i think,