Anoble woman educated her children. why was a peasant woman less likely to teach her own children?

The peasant would be less educated herself and unable to teach her children. While a noble was probably rich or had a decent amount of money and was educated as a child therefore able to educate her children/child.

Because some of the peasant womens are less educated and had lot of chores to do.

February 1848 is when it was added. if that's what you were asking

The townshend duties were repealed, except for the tax on textiles, tea, or glass?