2 Which one of the following best describes why Germany wanted to get even with European nations after World
'War I?

alliances in ww1 were different from ww2 because the entente in ww1 made up of serbia,russia,france,britan,japan and italy later america  and all allied in a sort of balance of power and too keep germany,austria-hungary,and the ottomans down. russia allied the serbians in order to exert its influence in the balkans while france allied the russians because france was still in dismay and insulted after the defeat to the germans during the unification of germany and britian allied the belgians after the germans invasion of belgium.in ww2 the alliances were in a preemptive attempt to deter any further wars into happening while germany and italy allied since they were insulted and humiliated after the previous war while also sharing a similar ideology of facsim along with japan which all 3 had a want for world domination and agreed to assist one another in the endevours 

explanation:

the right answer for the question that is being asked and shown above is that: "their policy of "divide and rule" pitted political groups against each other to keep any one group from becoming too powerful.  " the  participant in european imperialism is being described below is that  their policy of "divide and rule" pitted political groups against each other to keep any one group from becoming too powerful.