A man was diagnosed with epilepsy. He frequently has seizures and becomes unconscious. He does not want to stop driving, even though he knows he could lose consciousness and cause car accidents. He decides to drive anyway. While driving, he has a seizure, becomes unconscious, and drives over a girl who is crossing the street. She dies (adapted from People v. Decina). WILL THE MAN WHO KILLED SOMEONE FROM HAVING A SEIZURE WHILE DRIVING BE HELD CRIMINALLY RESPONSIBLE FOR HOMICIDE?

IF HE HAD NOT YET BEEN DIAGNOSED AND HAD HIS FIRST SEIZURE EVER, WOULD HE STILL BE CRIMINALLY RESPONSIBLE FOR HOMICIDE?

The man will be responsible for driving over a child of course. For he wasn’t supposed to drive and it was his responsibility to take care of himself before driving. And even if it was his first year he would still be accused as a criminal for when driving, everybody expects you to take your time to drive and be aware.

Explanation: Please correct me if I’m wrong.

answer:

b. tell a trusted adult

explanation:

most reasonable¯\_(ツ)_/¯(^.^)/~~~

answer:

the colonists had their reasons for creating a weak central (federal) government under the articles of confederation. not only did they create a weak federal government, they restricted the powers of the state governors because they were so concerned about the leaders abusing their power.