If the inverses of two functions are both functions, will the inverse of the sum or difference of the original functions also be a function?

No. Consider the functions given below :

Let f and g be two functions from the set of real numbers to the set of real numbers defined by

f(x) = x , g(x) = x and h(x) = - x

Clearly, inverses of these functions are functions.

But, f(x) + h(x) = x + ( - x) = 0 does not have inverse.

Also, f(x) - g(x) = 0 does not have inverse.

check the picture below.

well, the angle at the vertex d is clearly not a right-angle, let's check for the one at the vertex f which does look like,   however if it's indeed, that means ef is perpendicular to df, in which case their slopes will be negative reciprocal of each other.

so the negative reciprocal of the slope of ef is 1, however the slope of df is not 1, is 1/2, so nope, they're not perpendicular lines.

well what you have to do is divide 84 by 6 so theanswer

step-by-step explanation:

84 divided by 6 = 14

and that lightbulb changing party must be freaking lit!