Doing a ! only got an hour: ( use the probability distribution table to answer the question. what is p(1

Step-by-step explanation:

Since we have given that from the table

now, we need to calculate,

As we just take the values of  from 2 to 4 as 1 and 5 is not included.

So, we get our

e^-kt = n/n0 = 0.79  

-kt = ln 0.79  

t = - ln 0.79/0.0001  

= 2357 years

step-by-step explanation:

statement #3: proof- ang is congruent to ang ecd : angles are congruent.  

step-by-step explanation:

1: the missing angles in statement #3  

a.) acb  

reason- the reason why the answer is acb is because angle ecd and angle acb are both the same size *that's what the word congruent means this is really simple.  

2: the missing word in reason #3  

c.) vertical  

reason- the reason why the answer is vertical is because the angles in that diagram on figure 2 is slanted, which is vertical, and the e and a both lay on vertical lines. along with the other's, but e and a are the 2 main points you want to focus on. and c is kind of like your starting point, because c is for both angles, not just one.  

i hope that was and understanding.