Mathematics, 28.01.2020 21:05 Amaris0901
Which of the following explains why f(x) = log4x does not have a y-intercept? check all that apply.
1. there is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.
2. there is no power of 4 that is equal to 1.
3. its inverse does not have any x-intercepts.
4. its inverse does not have any y-intercepts.
need answer !
Answers: 1
.... (1) ![[\because y=log_ax\Rightarrow a^y=x]](/tpl/images/0478/5505/64ce2.png)
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Which of the following explains why f(x) = log4x does not have a y-intercept? check all that apply....
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