Is rationalizing a denominator is the same as multiplying by 1?

Step-by-step explanation:

yes.  

Assume you have the function:

Then in order to rationalize the denominator, you'd multiply the whole function by 1:

check the links in the comments above, notice on all those links, we multiply top and bottom always by the same value, it being the conjugate pair or just a rational or something else, is the same value atop and below.

now, what is same over same?

so you see, we're really always multiplying the fraction by 1, so its top and bottom are just 1 in disguise.

597

step-by-step explanation:

answer: first option i.e. 'a' is correct.

step-by-step explanation:

since we have given that

number of minutes to wrap a small gift box = 4 minutes

we need to find the number of gifts to be wrapped in 5 minutes

since there is a direct variation, as the number of minutes will increase with   number of gifts to be wrapped.

so, let the number of gifts to be wrapped in 5 minutes be x.

so, it becomes,

hence, first option 'a'   is correct.