If two vector spaces v and w over r are isomorphic, v ? = w, then is it justified to think of them as the same vector space? why, why not?

gdp is the best phrase!

-22

times both sides by 2, times () by 8, add alile terms, move terms, add alike and caculate divide both sides by 3

y= 2x+7

changed to y= 5x +7

as slope is increased from 2 to 5

therefore it would be less steeper

so, option d) is correct