Why does the probability of drawing a jack and a 10 out of a deck of 52 cards=0?

A card cannot be both a jack and 10 at the same time.

(The events are mutually exclusive; can't occur at same time.)

Step-by-step explanation:

When drawing a single card at a time, the card cannot be a jack and 10 at the same time.

P(Jack or 10) would be a different story.  There are 4 of each kind in a deck so the P(Jack or 10)=8/52=4/26=2/13.

0

step-by-step explanation:

you can not divide by 0 so 4 ÷ 0 would be 0

0 × 9999 =0

mark brainliest   : )

the direct variation says that:

then the equation is of the form is given by:

            where k is the constant variation.

from the given table:

consider any value of x and m(x)=y

x = 2 and m(x)=y = 3

substitute these value in [1]; we have;

divide both sides by 2 we get;

⇒

check:

put x = -1 and m(x) = -1.5

substitute in the equation:

-1.5 = -1.5                   true

therefore, the function m(x) represents a direct variation

graph of this function as shown below: