Suppose that an insurance company classifies people into one of three classes — good risks, average risks, and bad risks. their records indicate that the probabilities that good, average, and bad risk persons will be involved in an accident over a 1-year span are, respectively, .05, .15, and .30. if 20 percent of the population are "good risks," 50 percent are "average risks," and 30 percent are "bad risks," what proportion of people have accidents in a fixed year? if policy holder a had no accidents in 1987, what is the probability that he or she is a good (average) risk?

Our required probability is 0.745.

Step-by-step explanation:

Since we have given that

Probability of getting good risks people = 0.05

Probability of getting average risks people = 0.15

Probability of getting bad risks people = 0.30

Probability of getting good risk accident = 0.2

Probability of getting average risk accident = 0.5

Probability of getting bad risk accident = 0.3

So, Probability of people having accident in a year is given by

Probability of people either good or average risk given that he\she had no accident is given by

Hence, our required probability is 0.745.

i think the answer is a,c,e.

i hope i love yaaa..bruno mars from california.

step-by-step explanation:

part a

in a city ice cream is mostly only bought when the temperature is very high as ice cream cools down our

so we can derive the conclusion that as the temperature increases the number of ice creams sold also increases

part b

y intercept is 5

slope is 2

happy to

pls mark as brainliest