Given: p: two linear functions have different coefficients of x. q: the graphs of two functions intersect at exactly one point. which statement is logically equivalent to q → p? if two linear functions have different coefficients of x, then the graphs of the two functions intersect at exactly one point. if two linear functions have the same coefficients of x, then the graphs of the two linear functions do not intersect at exactly one point. if the graphs of two functions do not intersect at exactly one point, then the two linear functions have the same coefficients of x. if the graphs of two functions intersect at exactly one point, then the two linear functions have the same coefficients of x.

The statement that reads: "If the graphs of two functions do not intersect at exactly one point, then the two linear functions have the same coefficients of x."

Step-by-step explanation:

The first two statements go from a statement on the values of the coefficients of x (thus, associated with statement "p") and imply some statement regarding the intersection of graphs (associated with statement "q"). Therefore the implication goes in the opposite direction to q --> p

The third statement is the negative of q --> p , but logically implies the same.

The fourth statement is in fact q --> NOp, and therefore does NOT imply the same as q --> p

The correct statement is the third on in the list.

10a^3+277a^2-132a-792

step-by-step explanation:

(2a+11)(5a-12)(foil)

=10a^2-24a+55a-132 =10a^2+31a-132

(10a^2+31a-132)(a+6)

=10a^3+60a^2+31a^2+186a^2-132a-792 =10a^3+277a^2-132a-792

i hope this is what you are looking for : )

the olimpics is not going to wokk out

step-by-step explanation: