What reason accurately completes the proof? converse of the same-side interior angles theorem same-side interior angles theorem property of rectangles (opposite sides are parallel) converse of the alternate interior angles theorem?

f(x) = x^3 -2x^2 -3x

x( x^2 -2x-3)

x( x^2 +x -3x -3)

x( x(x+1) -3(x+1))

x( x-3)( x+1)

so zeroes are 0, 3,-1

its (2) option

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step-by-step explanation:

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the answer is here

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