According to the international nanny association (ina), 4,176 nannies were placed in a job last year. ( 2007). of course, only 24 were men. in exercise 3.18 (p. 125) you found the probability that a randomly selected nanny who was placed last year is a man. now find the probability that in a random sample of 10 nannies who were placed last year, at least 1 is a man

There is a 5.56% probability that there is at one man in this sample

Step-by-step explanation:

For each nanny, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is a women, or it is a men. This means that we can solve this problem using the binomial probability distribution.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

In which is the number of different combinatios of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

And is the probability of X happening.

Of 4,176 nannies, only 24 were men. This means that .

Now find the probability that in a random sample of 10 nannies who were placed last year, at least 1 is a man

Sample of 10 nannies, so

Either there is at least one nanny that is a men, that is probability , or there are no nannies there are men, that is probability . The sum of these probabilities is decimal 1. We want to find .

There is a 5.56% probability that there is at one man in this sample

246

step-by-step explanation:

x= cost per bracelet

number of bracelets * x + shipping charge = total cost

so

9x+9=72