If f(x) and g(x) are inverse functions of each other, which of the following statements is true?

a.) f(x) *divided by* g(x) = 1

b.) f(x) = -g(x)

c.) (f•g)(x) = 1 (• does not mean times, it means f of g)

d.) (g•f)(x) = x

(g•f)(x) = x.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let , then the inverse function of the f(x) is

So, (g•f)(x) =

Therefore, we can write if f(x) and g(x) are inverse functions of each other, then (g•f)(x) = x.

Hence, option D is correct. (Answer)