Consider there are three machines. All of the machines can produce 1000 pins at a time. Therate of producing a faulty pin from Machine 1 be 10%, from Machine 2 be 20% andfrom Machine3 be 5%. What is the probability that a produced pin will be faulty and it will be from the firstmachin?

0.03333

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that there are three machines. All of the machines can produce 1000 pins at a time.

Chance for any machine is thus equaly likely = 1/3

The rate of producing a faulty pin from Machine 1 be 10%, from Machine 2 be 20% andfrom Machine3 be 5%.

Machine             I                     II              III                  total

Faulty              0.10                0.20        0.05

Prob                0.3333           0.3333    0.3334             1

Faulty*prob    0.03333         0.06666  0.16665         0.26664

Thus probability  that a produced pin will be faulty and it will be from the firstmachine

= 0.03333

a. she will receive a refund of $278.

step-by-step explanation:

no association

step-by-step explanation:

if you have eyes and you can use them efficiently you can see that it just looks like random dots like do a line of best fit and like they're so spread out it's such a weak association you might as well consider it nonexistent