Make a list or table of the possible outcomes and find the probability of landing on the number one with the First spin and 2 with the Second Spin

Alright. So this is fairly easy. it is 50/50 if there is only 2 numbers. For example. If it was 1, 2 ,3 it would be 33.3% chance according to the Theoretical probability. If you are doing scientific probability then it would be over 50%. But again I can't even really tell because there is no graph or anything.

Step-by-step explanation:

25% is the answer

see attached

step-by-step explanation:

given the function as;

write the equation replacing f(x) with y

form   and fill a table containing values of y with corresponding values of x

you can take a range for   values of x as -3≤x≤3

solving for x=-3

for x=-2

repeat the same procedure to get the values of y for the remaining ,x=-1 to x=3

plot the values of y against values   of x and obtain the following graph