Can someone answer this question please answer it correctly if it’s corect I will mark you brainliest

dependent

Step-by-step explanation:

These two events are dependent.  When the ball is set aside, there are fewer balls  to draw from, so the probability of getting a certain ball becomes greater.

Why is this?

The first selection affects the probability of the second selection.

Let's say we had 10 numbers to pick from: {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10}

The probability of getting any single number is 1/10 = 0.10 = 10%

After that first ball is picked, and not put back (thats the key here), we have 9 balls left. The probability of getting a single number from this new reduced set is 1/9 = 0.111 = 11.1% approximately. We have a slightly higher chance to get a certain number compared to than before. This is because there is a smaller pool to pick from. The second selection's probability being changed based on the first event is why the second event is dependent on the first. The events would only be independent if the second probability does not change no matter what the first event does.

may i see the picture? it would a lot, xox

i would be happy to . most people on would also love to i'm sure. if you just want someone who has done algebra before and want a little more personal relationship than just begging strangers for , i can certainly be of service. i do have college myself so i might not be 24/7.