Let f(x) = x – 3 and g(x) = x + 11. find f(x) • g( . a] x2 – 8x – 33. b] x2 – 8x + 14. c] x2 + 8x + 14. d] x2 + 8x – 33

Here is their argument. given the obtuse angle x, we make a quadrilateral abcd with ∠dab = x, and ∠abc = 90◦, and ad = bc. say the perpendicular bisector to dc meets the perpendicular bisector to ab at p. then pa = pb and pc = pd. so the triangles pad and pbc have equal sides and are congruent. thus ∠pad = ∠pbc. but pab is isosceles, hence ∠pab = ∠pba. subtracting, gives x = ∠pad−∠pab = ∠pbc −∠pba = 90◦. this is a preposterous conclusion – just where is the mistake in the "proof" and why does the argument break down there?

Rockwell hardness of pins of a certain type is known to have a mean value of 50 and a standard deviation of 1.1. (round your answers to four decimal places.) (a) if the distribution is normal, what is the probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 8 pins is at least 51?

Right triangle xyz has a right angle at vertex y and a hypotenuse that measures 24 cm. angle zxy measures 70º. what is the length of line segment xy? round to the nearest tenth. 8.2 cm 8.7 cm 22.6 m 25.5 cm