If I have 4 coins and want to give 2 to my friend how manny will I have left

2

Step-by-step explanation:

2

Step-by-step explanation:

You would have 2 because you would do 4-2=2.

answer: the answer is one

step-by-step explanation:

pemdas, in this situation there is no parenthesis or exponents so you go to multiplication, 1x1=1, then division 1/1= 1 then addition 1+1=2 then subtraction 2-1=1

20/27

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step-by-step explanation:

1 simplify brackets

-\frac{8}{9}\times \frac{5}{6}−

​9

​

​8

​​ ×

​6

​

​5

​​

2 use this rule: \frac{a}{b}\times \frac{c}{d}=\frac{ac}{bd}

​b

​

​a

​​ ×

​d

​

​c

​​ =

​bd

​

​ac

​​

-\frac{8\times 5}{9\times 6}−

​9×6

​

​8×5

​​

3 simplify 8\times 58×5 to 4040

-\frac{40}{9\times 6}−

​9×6

​

​40

​​

4 simplify 9\times 69×6 to 5454

-\frac{40}{54}−

​54

​

​40

​​

5 simplify \frac{40}{54}

​54

​

​40

​​   to \frac{20}{27}

​27

​

​20

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