This quick math question:)

Option B

Each value of x has one corresponding value of y

B. Yes, because each x-value has exactly one corresponding y-value

Step-by-step explanation:

Let us use the process of elimination to solve show that this is the correct answer

A. Yes, because it touches the y-axis exactly one time

           While this will occur within a function, it is not something that proves that the given graph is a function, so this is incorrect.

C. No, because there are no closed circles to show where the graph ends

           Some functions are infinite while some are not, so not having closed circles would not prove that a graph is a function or not.

D. No, because some of the y-values are paired with two x-values

           For a graph to be a function, each x-value must have exactly one y-values, but this does not mean that each y-value must have one x-value, so this will not prove that this graph is not a function.

chase is right because he already been to the swings and he know how far it will be to get there

step-by-step explanation: