A researcher randomly sampled 30 graduates of an MBA program and recorded data concerning their starting salaries. Of primary interest to the researcher was the effect of gender on starting salaries. The result of the pooled-variance t-test of the mean salaries of the females (Population 1) and males (Population 2) in the sample is given below. The researcher was attempting to show statistically that the female MBA graduates have a significantly lower mean starting salary than the male MBA graduates. What is the proper conclusion for this test?

There is no enough evidence to claim that the female MBA graduates have a significantly lower mean starting salary than the male MBA graduates.

Step-by-step explanation:

The question is incomplete: the table is attached as picture.

The researcher was attempting to show statistically that the female MBA graduates have a significantly lower mean starting salary than the male MBA graduates.

As result from the test we have a t-statistic with a value t=-1.37631.

We don't know the significance level, but we know that the critical value that separates the acceptance region from the rejection region is tc=-1.70113.

To be the difference between means statistically lower than 0, the t-statistic should be lower than the critical value.

This is not the case, so the null hypothesis failed to be rejected.

There is no enough evidence to claim that the female MBA graduates have a significantly lower mean starting salary than the male MBA graduates.

too hard the other guy did it

step-by-step explanation: