Prove the formula for (d/dx)(cos−1(x)) by the same method as for (d/dx)(sin−1(x)). Let y = cos−1(x). Then cos(y) = and 0 ≤ y ≤ π ⇒ −sin(y) dy dx = 1 ⇒

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the differential (d/dx)(cos−1(x)), to find the equivalent formula we will differentiate the inverse function using chain rule as shown below;

let;

Therefore;

Since x = cos y from the above substitute;

Hence, gives the required proof

i got 10.28 but that rounds up to 10.3

answer: b

step-by-step explanation: