Are lines m1 and m2 parallel? Explain Yes, because line m1 has a slope of -\frac{5}{2}− 2 5 and m2 has a slope of -2 No, because lines m1 and m2 have the same slope of -\frac{5}{2}− 2 5 No, because line m1 has a slope of -\frac{5}{2}− 2 5 and m2 has a slope of -2 Yes, because lines m1 and m2 have the same slope of -2 Item at position 2 2

Yes, because lines m1 and m2 have the same slope of -2

Step-by-step explanation:

For given two lines L1 and L2 with slope m1 and m2 respectively, the condition for the two lines to be parallel is for the two equations to have the same slope. If m1 = m2, the meaning is that the line L1 and L2 are parallel to each other no matter the equation of the lines in question.

The general equation of a line is y = mx+c where;

m is the slope and c is the intercept.

Even though we are not given the equation of both lines, the base line is that for two lines to be parallel to each other, they must have the same slope.

The correct option is therefore "Yes, because lines m1 and m2 have the same slope of -2"