Suppose a manufacturer finds that 95% of their production is normal but the final 5% has one or more flaws. Each flawed good has a financial cost to the firm of $1. The manufacturer tasks a team led by you, the manager to identify the likelihood of upcoming flaws by providing your best expectation. Here is what you found by reviewing past production. Of the flawed goods:80% show Type 1 flaws.50% show Type 2 flaws.30% show both Type 1 and Type 2 flaws.1. Make a Bivariate Table using the above data.2. What is the probability and expectations of type 1 flaw?3. What is the probability and expectation of Type 2 flaw?4. What is the probability and expectations of Type 1 and 2 flaws?5. What is the probability and expectations of no flaws?

1)    

FLAW                         TYPE2         NO TYPE2 FLAW

TYPE1                         0.015           0.025

NO TYPE1 FLAW        0.01             0.95

2) 0.04 and $0.04

3) 0.025 and $0.025

4) 0.015 and $0.015

5) 0.95 and $0.95

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that;

financial cost = $1

p(flaw) = 0.05  

p(type 1 flaw / flaw) = 80% = 0.8

p(type 2 flaw / flaw) = 50% = 0.5

p( type 1 and 2 flaw/flaw) = 30% = 0.30

1) Bivariate Table

p( type 1 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 1 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.8 = 0.04

p( type 2 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 2 flaw/flaw)  = 0.05 × 0.5 = 0.025

p( type 1 and 2 flaw) =  p(flow) × p( type 1 & 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.3 = 0.015

p( only 1 flow) = 0.04 - 0.015 = 0.025

p( only 2 flow) =  0.025 - 0.015 = 0.01

THEREFORE  the Bivariate Table;

FLAW                         TYPE2         NO TYPE2 FLAW

TYPE1                         0.015           0.025

NO TYPE1 FLAW       0.01              0.95

2) probability and expectations of type 1 flaw?

p( type 1 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 1 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.8 = 0.04

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 × 0.04 = $0.04

3)  probability and expectation of Type 2 flaw

p( type 2 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 2 flaw/flaw)  = 0.05 × 0.5 = 0.025

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 × 0.025 = $0.025

4) probability and expectations of Type 1 and 2 flaws

p( type 1 and 2 flaw) =  p(flow) × p( type 1 & 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.3 = 0.015

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 * 0.015 = $0.015

5) probability and expectations of no flaws?

Probability of no flaw = P(No flaw) =95% =  0.95

Expected financial cost saved the firm per good due to no flaw

= $1 × 0.95 = $0.95

step-by-step explanation:

the original amount doesn't ''re just looking for the time it takes for 1/2 of the substance to we have

(1/2) =)     take the ln   of both sides

ln (1/2)   = )   and we can write

ln(1/2) = ) lne     and lne   = 1     so we have

ln(1/2) = -.1092t     divide both sides by -.1092

t = ln(1/2)/-.1092 = about 6.347 days = about 6.3 days (rounded)

answer: howdy

step-by-step explanation: