The company’s total accumulated expenses up to time t is modeled by the function E defined by E(t)=3log2(12t+4), where E(t) is measured in millions of United States dollars and t is the time in years since 1980. According to these models, is there a time t, for 0≤t≤5, at which the total accumulated profit, R(t)−E(t), is equal to 0 ? Justify your answer.