Which of the following inequalities has a solution x≥−3 3(x−1)≤4x

x≥x+32

x6≤x2−1

x+4≥x3

A

Step-by-step explanation: 3(x-1) becomes 3x -3 ≤ 4x. Put all like variables on the same side, meaning you'll subtract 3x from both sides giving you -3 ≤ x. You can flip the equation around to make it look exactly like x ≥ -3

well there are two answers for that.

1: you need 120 ones then that will equal up to 120.

2: you could also do one 100 and 2 tens.

those are the answers that i have thought of.

probability for j is 1/4

while

a is 1/6